投资学第10版习题解答06.docVIP

CHAPTER 6: CAPITAL ALLOCATION TO RISKY ASSETS PROBLEM SETS 1. (e) The first two answer choices are incorrect because a highly risk averse investor would avoid portfolios with higher risk premiums and higher standard deviations. In addition, higher or lower Sharpe ratios are not an indication of an investors tolerance for risk. The Sharpe ratio is simply a tool to absolutely measure the return premium earned per unit of risk. 2. (b) A higher borrowing rate is a consequence of the risk of the borrowers’ default. In perfect markets with no additional cost of default, this increment would equal the value of the borrower’s option to default, and the Sharpe measure, with appropriate treatment of the default option, would be the same. However, in reality there are costs to default so that this part of the increment lowers the Sharpe ratio. Also, notice that answer (c) is not correct because doubling the expected return with a fixed risk-free rate will more than double the risk premium and the Sharpe ratio. 3. Assuming no change in risk tolerance, that is, an unchanged risk-aversion coefficient (A), higher perceived volatility increases the denominator of the equation for the optimal investment in the risky portfolio (Equation 6.7). The proportion invested in the risky portfolio will therefore decrease. 4. a. The expected cash flow is: (0.5 × $70,000) + (0.5 × 200,000) = $135,000. With a risk premium of 8% over the risk-free rate of 6%, the required rate of return is 14%. Therefore, the present value of the portfolio is: $135,000/1.14 = $118,421 b. If the portfolio is purchased for $118,421 and provides an expected cash inflow of $135,000, then the expected rate of return [E(r)] is as follows: $118,421 × [1 + E(r)] = $135,000 Therefore, E(r) = 14%. The portfolio price is set to equate the expected rate of return with the required rate of return. c. If the risk premium over T-bills is now 12%, then the required return is: 6% + 12% = 18% The present value of the portfo