公司金融课后题答案CHAPTER 18.docxVIP

CHAPTER 18VALUATION AND CAPITAL BUDGETING FOR THE LEVERED FIRMAnswers to Concepts Review and Critical Thinking Questions1.APV is equal to the NPV of the project (i.e. the value of the project for an unlevered firm) plus the NPV of financing side effects.2.The WACC is based on a target debt level while the APV is based on the amount of debt.3.FTE uses levered cash flow and other methods use unlevered cash flow.4.The WACC method does not explicitly include the interest cash flows, but it does implicitly include the interest cost in the WACC. If he insists that the interest payments are explicitly shown, you should use the FTE method.5.You can estimate the unlevered beta from a levered beta. The unlevered beta is the beta of the assets of the firm; as such, it is a measure of the business risk. Note that the unlevered beta will always be lower than the levered beta (assuming the betas are positive). The difference is due to the leverage of the company. Thus, the second risk factor measured by a levered beta is the financial risk of the company.Solutions to Questions and ProblemsNOTE: All end-of-chapter problems were solved using a spreadsheet. Many problems require multiple steps. Due to space and readability constraints, when these intermediate steps are included in this solutions manual, rounding may appear to have occurred. However, the final answer for each problem is found without rounding during any step in the problem.Basic1.a.The maximum price that the company should be willing to pay for the fleet of cars with all-equity funding is the price that makes the NPV of the transaction equal to zero. The NPV equation for the project is: NPV = –Purchase Price + PV[(1 – tC )(EBTD)] + PV(Depreciation Tax Shield)If we let P equal the purchase price of the fleet, then the NPV is: NPV = –P + (1 – .35)($140,000)PVIFA13%,5 + (.35)(P/5)PVIFA13%,5Setting the NPV equal to zero and solving for the purchase price, we find:0 = –P + (1 – .35)($140,000)PVIFA13%,5 + (.35)(P/5)PVIFA