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- 约1.22万字
- 约 34页
- 2018-07-06 发布于浙江
- 举报
Theorem Let (A, *) and (B, *) be semigroups, monoids or groups. Then the inverse f-1:B?A of any isomorphism f:A ? B is itself an isomorphism. Proof: The inverse f-1:B?A of an isomorphism f:A?B is itself a bijective function whose inverse is the function f:A ? B. It remains to show that f-1:B?A is a homomorphism. Let u and v be elements of B, and let x = f-1(u) and y = f-1(v). Then u = f(x) and v = f(y), and therefore f(x* y) = f(x)* f(y) = u *v and therefore f-1(u*v) = x *y = f-1(u) *f-1(v); showing that the function f-1:B ?A is a homomorphism from (B; *) to (A;* ), as required. Isom
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